Maths > Abelian varieties > Absolute Hodge classes
Tate twists in singular and de Rham cohomology
Posted by Martin Orr on Friday, 19 June 2015 at 19:30
Tate twists in singular cohomology are a device for dealing with factors of which come up whenever we compare singular and de Rham cohomology of complex projective varieties.
In this post I will explain the problem, including calculating the 
in the case of 
, and define Tate twists to solve it.
In the case of singular cohomology, Tate twists are largely a matter of normalising things conveniently.
Without them, we could just write out factors of
everywhere.
On the other hand, there is also a notion of Tate twists for
-adic cohomology, which cannot be omitted so easily, and which I will discuss in a subsequent post.
The problem
Let
be a field of characteristic zero which can be embedded in
and let
be a smooth projective variety over
.
For each embedding
, there is a comparison isomorphism between de Rham and singular cohomology of
:

As I briefly mentioned previously, for each
-algebraic subvariety
of codimension
, we can define a so-called de Rham cycle class .
If we choose an embedding , we can also define a cycle class for 
in singular cohomology (which appears in the Hodge conjecture).
But there are two different normalisations for the cycle class map into singular cohomology.
First, there is the topologist's version , defined by taking the fundamental class of 
in singular homology and then using Poincaré duality.
This is an integral element of singular cohomology:

However, it turns out that the topologist's cycle class map is not compatible with the de Rham cycle class map.
They differ by a factor of
:
I will prove this below for the class of a point in 
.
The solution: Tate twists
We fix this problem by changing the normalisation of the cycle class map for singular cohomology.
Why do we change the normalisation for singular cohomology instead of for de Rham cohomology?
Because this normalisation is something we will only do over
, and the definition of the de Rham cycle class map works over all fields.
If we simply multiplied by 
, then we would solve the compatibility issue, but it would no longer take values in 
(and hence its values would not be Hodge classes).
So instead we introduce a new object called a Tate twist.
The Tate twist for singular cohomology is a
-Hodge structure, denoted
, with underlying
-module and with Hodge type 
.
As pieces of notation, we define
for each positive integer 
, and define 
to be the dual of 
.
We also define 
to be 
-Hodge structure induced by 
, and


We define the algebraic geometer's cycle class map for singular cohomology to be
(The subscript 
is for Betti.)
It is useful to also define Tate twists for de Rham cohomology, even though they are trivial.
We thus define to be equal to 
(not just isomorphic).
The reason why we want to use the label 
for a Tate twist in de Rham cohomology is so that we remember which isomorphism to use to compare it with singular cohomology.
I was a bit confused about this until I asked a MathOverflow question a few days ago which helped me clear it up.
The comparison isomorphism
is defined as the untwisted comparison isomorphism

multiplied by the inclusion 
.
With this comparison isomorphism, we get the desired compatibility between cycle class maps:

Because the Tate twist is defined to have Hodge type 
, the Hodge structure 
has weight 0.
We define a Hodge class in 
to be an element of 
with Hodge type 
.
The image of 
consists of Hodge classes.
We could have carried out all of our previous two posts on absolute Hodge classes using in place of 
; the changes would be essentially just notational.
Calculating the de Rham cycle class map for 

I am going to justify the fact that the de Rham cycle class map and the topologist's cycle class map into differ by a factor of 
.
One often sees the 
justified by some sort of vague reference to the integral round a loop in , but that doesn't seem to fit our setting of smooth projective varieties.
So I am going to write out this calculation carefully (except that I will not be careful about signs - there are several sign conventions along the way and I don't think it is worth keeping track of them).
Thanks to Jack Shotton who helped with this.
First, is a generator of 
.
If we choose a 2-form 
representing the corresponding element of , the definition of the comparison isomorphism says that


The hard work is to calculate .
In particular, we want to show that


First, we interpret our point as a divisor of degree 1 on
.
Under the standard isomorphism ,
a divisor of degree 1 corresponds to the Čech cocycle

with respect to the open cover 
, 
(this is one place where I can never remember the sign convention).
We then apply the map
to get the class in represented by the Čech cocyle


The degeneracy of the Hodge-de Rham spectral sequence gives us an isomorphism .
To compute this isomorphism analytically over 
, we compare the Čech and Dolbeault complexes for
:
![\usepackage[matrix,arrow]{xy}
\xymatrix@C+=3em@R+=4em{
\Omega^1(\mathbb{P}^1) \ar[rr]^-{\txt{restrict}} \ar@{=}[d]
&
& \Omega^1(U_1) \times \Omega^1(U_2)
\ar[rr]^-{(\omega_1, \omega_2) \mapsto \omega_1 - \omega_2}
\ar[d]^{\substack{(\omega_1, \omega_2) \\ \mapsto \\ f_1 \omega_1 + f_2 \omega_2}}
&
& \Omega^1(U_1 \cap U_2)
\ar[d]^{\substack{\omega \\ \mapsto \\ (\bar\partial f_1) \omega}}
\ar[r]
& 0 \ar[d]
\\ \Omega^1(\mathbb{P}^1) \ar@{^{(}->}[rr]
&
& \mathcal{A}^{1,0}(\mathbb{P}^1) \ar[rr]^{\bar\partial}
&
& \mathcal{A}^{1,1}(\mathbb{P}^1) \ar[r]^{\bar\partial}
& 0
}](http://www.martinorr.name/blog/images/mathtex/2297.png)
Here
denotes the sheaf of
-forms.
We have chosen a partition of unity such that 
, 
vanishes on a neighbourhood of zero and 
vanishes on a neighbourhood of 
.
Note that 
and this implies that the square in the centre of the diagram commutes.
We conclude that is represented by the 

-form

We want to compute the integral of 
over 
, and show that this is equal to
.
Choose a loop
which generates .
Let 
and 
be the two regions into which 
divides
, labelled such that and 
.
On , the 1-form 
is well-defined and has total derivative equal to 
.
Similarly, on 
, the 1-form 
is well-defined and has total derivative equal to 
.
Hence, using Stokes' theorem, we get
(The minus sign in the second integrand cancels with the fact that the boundary of 
goes backwards round 
.)
Since
, we get
